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In both the Old Testament and the New Testament, we see premarital situations existing, which are either identified as being betrothed or espoused. Very few modern revised Bibles ever use the word espoused in such situations. However, the King James Bible and a couple of revised versions use the word espoused and not betrothed in a number of places to identify premarital situations. The question is: Why would these Bibles translate the Hebrew and Greek words using the English word espoused and not betrothed? What is interesting is the word transcribed in both Hebrew and in Greek can be translated in English as meaning either betrothed or espoused. Howbeit, if the words mean the same, then why would the K.J. Bible pen the word espoused in certain places, where most modern versions never use that word at all, since they have the same meaning? Well, there is a huge reason for it, which scholars of the modern versions have no comprehension or knowledge of. They are not as knowledgeable as they want you to believe. I made this indisputable video to expose more of their ignorance when it comes to marriage and Biblical marriage. Once you watch this video you will no longer be ignorant as to why a difference does exist between the two words and how you can conclude which word is the right one to use.
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